C2090-645 IBM Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author

Test information:
Number of questions: 57
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Designer - Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Reports
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI

The Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author Exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Dimensional Data Components (28%)
Distinguish between relational, DMR, and dimensional data sources
Identify dimensional data items and expressions
Define multidimensional data structure components
Describe the importance of report context
Identify the default measure of a report
Describe default members and their purpose
Describe what a MUN is and identify the impact of using the wrong MUN
Describe what a set is
Describe what a tuple is

Focus Reports (14%)
Distinguish between dimensional and relational filtering styles
Identify techniques to focus data using the dimensional style
Interpret data that is focused based on members
Interpret data that is filtered based on measure values
Describe the purpose of a slicer

Drilling in Reports (14%)
Describe default drill-down behavior
Describe default drill-up behavior
Describe cases for advanced drilling configuration
Appraise reports generated with calculations that are preserved during drilling
Describe how member sets work

Drill-through Access (8%)
Identify supported drill-through data item combinations
Set-up drill-through access
Describe a conformed dimension

Calculations and Dimensional Functions (36%)
Describe the use of arithmetic operations in queries
Analyze the use of dimensional functions in queries
Examine coercion
Apply prompts to focus reports
Compose complex expressions that combine and reuse existing expressions

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QUESTION 1
To display all individual campaigns in a crosstab report, a report author could use the expression set([TrailChef Campaign],[EverGlow Campaign],[Course Pro Campaign]). Instead, the report author decides to use the parent member of the campaigns in the set expression "children([All Campaigns])". Which statement is true about the method that was used?

A. In the future, when a campaign is deleted or new ones are added, the report author must modify the expression.
B. In the future, when a campaign is deleted or new ones are added, the unmodified expression will be valid.
C. The report author should not have used the method chosen, as the first method is best
in this situation.
D. To be accurate, the report author should avoid using a set expression.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is correct about the order function?

A. The currentMeasure function must be used with the order function as the sort by criterion.
B. It arranges members of all sets in the report by ascending or descending values.
C. Optional parameters allow the author to order the members of a hierarchy without regard of their level.
D. It arranges members of a set alphabetically by ascending or descending captions.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
A report author is working with an OLAP data source. The report author creates a query that uses a caption function on a member and applies a string function. What is a possible consequence of this action?

A. Using these dimensional methods will not work with an OLAP data source.
B. The mapped string values will not pass through to the target report.
C. There is nothing wrong with this approach.
D. Mixing dimensional styles and relational styles in a single query can create unexpected results.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
When must a report author use the caption function?

A. As the first parameter of the roleValue function.
B. To return the display name for the specified business key.
C. To see the string display name for the specified element.
D. To pass the returned value to a drill-through target report, this expects a matching string as a parameter value.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 5
Instead of prompting the user to select any countries in Europe, the report author wants to constrain the user to select one or more countries from the Northern Europe region. What kind of prompt should be used and how can this be achieved?

A. This is not possible because a prompt must always be populated with all members of a level.
B. Create a multi-select value prompt. Populate it using an expression on the [Northern Europe] member to retrieve its children on the country level.
C. Generate a prompt by creating an expression with a parameter on the crosstab edge: children([Northern Europe]->?Country?
D. Create a tree prompt, and populate it using an expression on the [Northern Europe]
member to retrieve its children at the country level.

Answer: B

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Exam 70-713 Software Asset Management (SAM) - Core

Published: April 11, 2017
Languages: English, Spanish, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Italian, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil), Russian
Audiences: IT Professionals
Technology: Microsoft SAM Optimization Model, ISO/IEC 19770-1 standards, IAITAM best practices, ITIL SAM-related standards
Credit toward certification: MCP

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Assess SAM Programs by using the SAM Optimization Model (SOM) (15-20%)
Define the scope of a SAM program assessment
Identify infrastructure groups and locations, identify estimated quantity of hardware and on-premises and cloud software assets, identify functional descriptions for each group and key points of contact
Assess SAM processes, policies, resources, and tools throughout an organization
Assess infrastructure groups for the existence of documented SAM procedures, roles, and responsibilities
Assign maturity levels
Assign maturity levels according to the 10 components of SOM, Assign one of four maturity levels to each component
Perform a gap analysis between maturity levels
Perform a gap analysis between the current maturity level and the desired maturity level, review assigned maturity levels

Manage Software Licenses (15-20%)
Collect and manage complete hardware and on-premises and cloud software inventories
Review an organization’s hardware and on-premises and cloud software inventory collection processes and data to ensure completeness
Validate inventory accuracy
Normalize on-premises and cloud software inventories, reconcile on-premises and cloud software inventories against other data sources, verify the accuracy of specified license metrics such as user counts based on HR employee records
Collect, validate, and manage license entitlement records
Gather, store, normalize, and validate license entitlement records and term documents, provide reports as needed
Perform a periodic reconciliation of on-premises and cloud software inventories, license entitlements and optimization opportunities
Reconcile on-premises and cloud software inventory data against on-premises and cloud software license entitlements data, determine and report license compliance status

Coordinate Data Collection Technologies (15-20%)
Manage data collection and ensure completeness
Identify machine type, agent installation requirements, collection schedules, and discrepancies between inventories, define data schemas, identify data storage locations, normalize collected data
Coordinate data collection between operations groups
Facilitate data transfer and synchronization between various IT groups; validate data between various IT groups; ensure that overall SAM processes are being followed; collect data for security, virtualization, and third-party resources including Linux
Manage data interfaces between disparate data sources
Identify the process of matching common fields, cross-referencing, and consolidation and integration of data from multiple sources
Manage reporting
Gather requirements for general user and executive reports, generate and maintain periodic reports, maintain the infrastructure necessary for ad hoc reporting requests, generate reports for software publishers

Design and Manage a SAM Program (25-30%)
Secure executive sponsorship and ongoing cadence
Identify stakeholders, create proposal materials, obtain explicit executive authorization for software asset infrastructure, policies, and overall corporate governance, establish a regular engagement with the senior management team
Secure funding
Estimate operational costs in both consulting hours and employee time, create a project plan and budget, obtain funding from each infrastructure group for each task associated with managing a SAM program
Design a SAM program
Identify resources and objectives for a SAM program, align resources with customer requirements and schedules, coordinate acquisition strategies, coordinate optimization methods that include Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and application virtualization, ensure strong security and compliance requirements
Implement a SAM program
Create a SAM stakeholder group to oversee the project, assess and benchmark the current state of SAM according to industry standards such as ISO/IEC 19770-1 and IAITAM, implement technologies to support asset discovery, enhance purchasing processes to include storage and retrieval of license entitlement information, perform initial license and cloud services reconciliation, create policies, processes, and procedures to support SAM efforts, secure support from all associated departments, educate employees
Maintain a SAM program
Monitor adherence to the policies, processes, and procedures of an organization’s SAM life cycle, standardize SAM processes across all domains and organizational units, perform periodic license and cloud services reconciliation, provide ongoing SAM awareness training
Create and manage a SAM program improvement plan
Incorporate SAM analytical data into strategic IT and business unit planning, create detailed metrics and reports to measure SAM adoption, implementation, and maturity, report Return of Investment (ROI), cost avoidance, and end-user satisfaction to all stakeholders, evangelize SAM maturity benefits

Manage the Software Asset Life Cycle (15-20%)
Manage the acquisition process
Identify and manage approved and unapproved purchasing processes, identify suppliers, manage software approval and receiving processes, manage license updates, optimization, and subscriptions, ensure proper consumption of online services
Manage the deployment process and consumption
Validate the availability of on-premises and cloud software licenses, select the correct media, specify the software identification characteristics, track deployment and consumption of on-premises cloud software
Optimize assets
Manage on-premises and cloud software and hardware centralization throughout the software asset life cycle according to ISO/IEC 19770-1 and IAITAM, generate awareness of available agreement benefits
Manage the retirement process
Identify hardware for retirement, retire software, harvest software licenses, ensure decommissioning or destruction of storage media, stop subscriptions and downloads, preserve compliance, perform notifications, retain documentation
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question In the series. Each question is Independent of the other questions In this series. Information and details provided In a question apply only to that question.
You represent a SAM partner.
A client must consolidate then IT departments into a single business unit. The client was previously assessed in the Microsoft SAM Optimization Model (SOM) key competencies and assigned a SAM maturity level.
You need to ensure that unused Microsoft Office 365 licenses arc reclaimed.
What should you do?

A. Purchase software from approved vendors.
B. Publish software deployment reports to stakeholder.
C. Use information provided by a software publisher.
D. Use software metadata generated by the client.
E. Deploy only approved software.
F. Formulate a retirement process.
G. Create an inventory of deployed assets.
H. Maintain updated records of deployed assets.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 2
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
An organization that achieves the Dynamic Microsoft SAM Optimization Model (SOM) level has SAM data available but typically does not use it for decision marking.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed.
B. Basic
C. Standardized
D. Rationalized

Answer: A

 

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QUESTION 3
An organization is implementing a SAM program. The organization is focused on achieving Tier 1 of the ISO 19770-1 specification.
You need to verity that contracts are reported on and inventoried.
What should you include in the report?

A. the last reported hardware inventory date
B. any approved exceptions to the contracts
C. contracts that do not match billing statements
D. the last reported software inventory date

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question In the series. Each question is independent of the other questions In this series. Information and details provided In a question apply only to that question.
You represent a SAM partner.
A client must consolidate their II departments into a single business unit. The client was previously assessed in the Microsoft SAM Optimization Model (SOM) key competencies and assigned a SAM maturity level.
The client reclaims unused software licenses from all departments.
You need to ensure that the client progresses to the next SOM level in the Retirement
Process key competency.
What should you do?

A. Purchase software only from approved vendors.
B. Publish software deployment reports to stakeholders.
C. Use information provided by a software publisher.
D. Use software metadata generated by the client.
E. Deploy only approved software.
F. Formulate a retirement process.
G. Create an inventory of deployed assets.
H. Maintain updated records of deployed assets.

Answer: A

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RC0-903 CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam

Exam Codes RC0-903
Launch Date July 7, 2016
Eligibility Candidates MUST have:

An active A+ CE certification earned by passing exams from the 800-series or earlier.

Received an email from CompTIA containing a Private Access Code (PAC).

Exam Description The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam covers these domains:
1.0 Mobile Devices (6% of total)
2.0 Windows Operating Systems (20% of total)
3.0 Other Operating Systems and Technologies (11% of total)
4.0 Troubleshooting (Hardware/Software) (59% of total)
5.0 Operational Procedures (4% of total)

Recertification Exam Objectives Download
Number of Questions 50
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response)
Length of Test 75 Minutes
Passing Score 700 (on a scale of 900)
Delivery Non-proctored Pearson IBT
CEU Impact

Only candidates with an active A+ CE certification will receive CEU credit.
Passing the exam will automatically renew your existing A+ CE. Please allow 1-3 days for your record to be updated.

Introduction The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam is one way for CompTIA A+ certified professionals to keep their A+ certification active. A CompTIA A+ certification earned on or after January 1, 2011 is valid for three years from the date the certification was earned. The certification must be renewed within three years in order for the individual to remain certified. To remain certified, individuals may:
 Re-take (and pass) both of the current certification exams (220-901 and 220-902)
 Participate in continuing education activities
 Take (and pass) the A+ re-certification exam (RC0-903) The CompTIA A+ Recertification Exam RC0-903 bridges the competencies measured by the A+ 800 series (220-801 and 220-802) and the 900 series (220-901 and 220-902). The exam (RC0-903) blueprint includes the objectives new to the 900 series and also assesses the highest weighted competencies that appear on both sets of exams
(i.e., the knowledge and skills rated by SMEs as most relevant for on - the - job performance). NOTE: Availability of RC0-903 is LIMITED TO THOSE who have kept their A+ certification active and have not taken and passed the current 900 series exams.

CompTIA A+ is accredited by ANSI to show compliance with the ISO 17024 Standard and, as such, undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives. The following CompTIA A+ Recertification RC0-903 exam objectives result from subject matter expert workshops and industry - wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an entry - level IT technical support
professional.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.
Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented. The CompTIA A+
RC0-903 exam is based on these objectives.

QUESTION 1 – (Topic 1)
A user reports that the cursor jumps to random screen locations when typing on a laptop computer. Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing this?
A. The touchpad
B. The mouse wheel
C. The multimedia keys
D. The digitizer
Answer: A

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QUESTION 2 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following would need to be enabled on a mobile phone to share its Internet connection with multiple devices simultaneously?
A. NFC
B. Bluetooth
C. Hotspot
D. Tethering
Answer: C

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QUESTION 3 – (Topic 1)
A customer asks a technician for a device that has the capability to easily connect a laptop to an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, and charge the battery. Which of the following devices should the technician recommend to the customer?
A. Lightning
B. KVM switch
C. USB 3.0
D. Docking station
Answer: D

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C2090-552 IBM InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 65
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, Japanese

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Data Growth, Optim Decommissioning, Test Data Management, or Test Data Management with Data Privacy option on a Distributed System.

Section 1 - Installation and Configuration (25%)
Optim Architecture
Operating Systems/Hardware support
Database Support
Establishing Environments
Optim Directories (location, numbers, owners)
Confirming installation pre-reqs
Physical installations
Security
Initializing
Enabling
Configuring
Archive / Extract Maintenance
File locations/sub-systems
File naming / sizing

Section 2 - Optim Core Functionality (35%)
Data Growth
Archive
Delete
Restore
Decommissioning
Test Data Management
Extract / Insert
Edit
Compare
Data Privacy Functions (when to use which ones)
Convert
Privacy Functions
Access Definitions
Relationships

Section 3 - Advanced Topics (34%)
Enterprise Integration
Security
Storage
Automation (i.e. Command Line)
Import/Export OPTIM DDL
Archive Files (i.e., location, collections, moving, registering, creating, managing index files)
Optim Connect
Archive Collections
Archive Indexes
Archive File Maintenance
Complex Data Model Traversals
Extended Data Sources
InfoSphere Federation Server
Optim Connect
Non-Enforced Referential Integrity
Column Maps and Exits

Section 4 - Performance and Troubleshooting (6%)
Log Files, Trace Files and Statistical Reports
Relationships (i.e., delete strategy, OPTIM relationships, Forced Key/Scan Lookups, Scans, Threads)

Relationship Index Analysis

IBM Certified Specialist - InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems v9.1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Solutions v9.1.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* Optim Core Functionality
* LUA
* Optim Search
* Masking on Demand
* Service on Demand
* New Database features and functionality
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Hands-on experience with installing, configuring and using InfoSphere Optim on Distributed Systems

IBM Certified Specialist - InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems Fundamentals

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for application developers, database administrators, and technical personnel who perform the installation, configuration and day-to-day tasks associated with ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of InfoSphere Optim environment.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* configuration of security
* archive and extract maintenance
* archiving and Optim Connect
* decommissioning
* creation and maintenance of test data
* privatizing data
* accessing extended data sources using Optim Connect and InfoSphere Federation Server
* implementing a test data management environment
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Familiarity with Optim Manuals
Hands-on experience with installing, configuring, and using Optim on Distributed Systems

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QUESTION 1
You can use the silent installer in a UNIX environment to install the Optim Server. The silent
installer is NOT available for which two of the following platforms? (Choose two.)

A. HP-UX 11i v2
B. Red Hat Linux 3
C. IBM AIX 5
D. Solaris 8
E. SUSE 10

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
When installing Optim, what is the minimum disk space needed for the database?

A. 50gb
B. 50mb
C. As required
D. 500mb

Answer: C

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
You are planning an installation of IBM Optim. Which two configurations are supported for the
Optim Server and Optim Directory? (Choose two.)

A. DB2 database running on Ubuntu Linux
B. DB2 or Oracle databases running on AIX
C. Oracle or Microsoft SQL Server databases running on AIX
D. DB2 or Informix databases running on Sun Solaris
E. DB2 or Microsoft Access databases running on Windows XP Professional

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Optim security roles? (Choose two.)

A. Functional Privilege classes such as Create New Actions and Create New Definitions can be
controlled using Roles.
B. Privileges such as Archive Request and Compare Request can be controlled using Roles
C. By default, the Access Control Domain allows access to all Optim Actions and privileges. Only
denial of privileges can be assigned using roles.
D. Default Roles may not be modified to allow or deny Functional Privilege Classes and New
Action Privileges.
E. Edit the FAD (File Access Definition) to control which roles has access to all of the files.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

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C2090-461 IBM InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems v9.1

Test information:
Number of questions: 34
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 61%
Languages: English

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Solutions v9.1.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* Optim Core Functionality
* LUA
* Optim Search
* Masking on Demand
* Service on Demand
* New Database features and functionality
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Section 1 - Installation and Configuration (29%)
Optim Architecture
Operating Systems / Hardware Support
Database Support
New or additional components (Optim Manager, Optim Designer, self-service and Optim Search, UDFs)
Masking on Demand
Establishing Environments
Optim Directories (location, numbers, owners)
Confirming installation pre-reqs
Physical installations (locations, what to separate, manager, where things exist)
Archive / Extract Maintenance
File location / sub-systems (BigData enhancements)
File naming / sizing

Section 2 - Optim Core Functionality (35%)
Archiving
File and Directory Maintenance
Search
Test Data Management
Using the Designer interface
Creating access definitions, table maps, column maps, services
Creating Optim relationships, aliases, data sources (discovery)
Using Optim Manager
Data Privacy Providers (when to use which ones)

Section 3 - Advanced Topics (29%)
LUA
Optim Search
Masking on Demand
Service on Demand
New Database Features/functionality (Netezza, loaders, teradata)

Section 4 - Performance and Troubleshooting (6%)
Log and Trace Files

IBM Certified Specialist - InfoSphere Optim for Distributed Systems v9.1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to plan, install, configure, troubleshoot, administer and maintain an IBM InfoSphere Optim Solutions v9.1.

This includes:
* product installation and configuration
* Optim Core Functionality
* LUA
* Optim Search
* Masking on Demand
* Service on Demand
* New Database features and functionality
* performance and tuning

The person performing these functions is generally self-sufficient and is able to perform most of the tasks involved in the role with limited assistance from peers, product documentation and vendor support services.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Hands-on experience with installing, configuring and using InfoSphere Optim on Distributed Systems

---

QUESTION 1
Considering best practices and Optim Access Definitions, which statement is FALSE?

A. Optim Classic interface would be used to define the Optionl and Option2 for my archive Access
Definition.
B. All tables included in an Access Definition that was created in Optim Designer must be in the
same DBAIias.
C. One can copy an Access Definition from one folder to another in Optim Designer and the
Wizard will require you to rename it.
D. A reference table can easily be changed to a related table in Optim Designer, however, one
should then verify the entire process by viewing Show Steps.

Answer: D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
In order to consistently mask a credit card number, which option should be used?

A. TRANS CCN
B. TRANS CCN ('=n CREDITCARD')
C. SUBSTR(CREDITCARD. 1. 12) || SEQ(1111.1)
D. There is no reason to mask the credit card number as long as you mask the name.

Answer: A

Explanation:

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1Z0-468 Oracle Cloud Application Foundation Essentials

Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 76
Passing Score: 62%
View passing score policy
Validated Against:
Format: Multiple Choice

Cloud Application Foundation (CAF) Fundamentals
Describe Cloud Application Foundation concepts
Identify components of WebLogic Suite
Identify differences between WebLogic Server (WLS) SE, EE & Suite
Describe the problem domain of Coherence with WLS
Describe Oracle Cloud Computing business drivers
Describe Virtual Assembly Builder Studio features
Describe supported and custom Appliances for Virtual Assemblies
Describe ActiveCache (WLS and Coherence)

Coherence Development Fundamentals
Describe Use Cases for Coherence
Deploy the correct Cache Topologies
Understand how Coherence Clustering works
Describe how parititioning works in Coherence
Describe client types and usage
Describe POF and other models of Object Serialization
Understand how to configure different cache topologies and services
Understand basic Coherence key-based APIs
Integrate with a datasource

Advanced Coherence Development Topics
Create indexes to optimize filters
Describe a service
Describe when you would use Elastic Data
Perform a map-reduce operation
Explain advanced capabilities like eventing and processing to customer
Configure and use a Near Cache or Continuous Query Cache
Configure operational features like Quorum and Service Guardian
Perform concurrent operations against a cache
Integrate with TopLink Grid
Pre-load a cache
Write Coherence queries

Deploying and Debugging a Coherence Application
Configure a set of proxies
Architect a Coherence client tier
Apply best practices for performance tuning
Plan Capacity for a Coherence deployment
Debug network issues in Coherence deployments
Tune and size Coherence JVMs
Describe how to run a Coherence application
Debug a basic Coherence problem
Collect information for advanced Coherence troubleshooting
Explain how Oracle Enterprise Manager integrates with Coherence
Apply the Production Checklist

Monitoring and Managing WebLogic Server with Oracle Enterprise Manager
Describe the architecture and components within Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
Utilize the three primary functional areas that are addressed by Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control in regards to WLS management
Configure Enterprise Manager with WLS
Explain how to position WebLogic Management Pack EE
Configure Oracle Enterprise Manager to provide full stack visibility and application performance management for WLS
Explain how Java Virtual Machine (JVM) diagnostics provides full cross-tier diagnostics in production environments and why it is important
Configure Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control to provide WLS patch automation
Utilize Oracle Enterprise Manager for lifecycle management (i.e. provisioning and cloning of WLS domains and Java applications)
Utilize the user experience management features provided by Oracle Enterprise Manager Real User Experience Insight
Describe the primary critical use cases for Oracle Enterprise Manager Business Transaction Management for WLS
Explain the key challenges that Oracle Enterprise Manager addresses with its configuration management features

Java VM
Explain the basics of Java VM
Explain the differences between HotSpot VM and Jrockit VM
Troubleshoot common performance problems
Describe different garbage collection schemes
Describe different VM tuning options
Utilize performance monitoring and profiling using JVM command line tools
Utilize advanced real-time performance monitoring, profiling and troubleshooting using Java Mission Control
Utilize Back-in-time analysis and troubleshooting using Java Flight Recorder
Design for Java application performance

Virtual Assembly Builder
Explain the business and IT challenges Virtual Assembly Builder helps with
Explain the advantages of assemblies over standalone VM templates
Create appliances and multi-tier assemblies
Customize an assembly at deployment time
Setup Virtual Assembly Builder Deployer and deploy a multi-tier assembly

Web Tier
Explain the basics of HTTP Server and Traffic Director
Design and configure Reverse Proxy with HTTP Server and Traffic Director
Secure HTTP Server and Traffic Director Environments
Perform basic troubleshooting of HTTP Server and Traffic Director


QUESTION 1
Which two mechanisms are explicitly monitored to determine death of a cluster member? (Choose two.)

A. garbage collection
B. stuck threads
C. heartbeats
D. TCP socket connections

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Explanation
Death detection works by creating a ring of TCP connections between all cluster members.
TCP communication is sent on the same port that is used for cluster UDP communication.
Each cluster member issues a unicast heartbeat, and the most senior cluster member issues the cluster heartbeat,
which is a broadcast message. Each cluster member uses the TCP connection to detectthe death of another node
within the heartbeat interval. Death detection is enabled by default and is configured within the <tcp-ring-listener> element.

---

QUESTION 2
Which is a valid reason for using Coherence Elastic Data?

A. You want to cache more that the total amount of RAM on your systems.
B. You want to extend your cluster across a WAN.
C. Data must be persisted to disk to ensure fault tolerance.
D. You want to store data on very large heaps.

Answer: A

Explanation:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/tutorials/tutorials-1694910.pdf

---

QUESTION 3
Which configuration file must a user edit to configure Oracle HTTP Server?

A. httpd.conf
B. obj.conf
C. workers.properties
D. magnus.conf
E. oraclehttp.conf

Answer: A

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QUESTION 4
You are doing capacity planning for a Coherence application with one distributed cache (dcache), and one replicated cache (rcache). You have one index on dcache, and dcache has backup_count=1. Your requirement is that you must be able to tolerate one machine failure with no loss of data. You have three machines, each with 4 JVMs GB.
What three factors do you take into consideration in case of machine failure? (Choose three.)

A. Each cache server will be responsible for more primary and backup data from dcache.
B. The size of index data in each cache server is likely to grow.
C. The size of rcache on each node will grow.
D. Updates to rcache will result in more network traffic per machine.
E. Updates to dcache will result in more network traffic per machine.

Answer: A,B,E

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C2070-984 IBM Case Manager V5.2 Solution Designer

Test information:
Number of questions: 61
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 57%
Languages: English

The test contains six sections, totaling 61 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - Planning and Architecture (16%)
Demonstrate understanding of IBM Case Manager Architecture
Identify solutions best addressed by Case Manager
Identify minimum installation requirements
Identify key differences between development and production environments
Identify integrated products and add-on software capabilities including licensing

Section 2 - Designing a Case Solution (44%)
Demonstrate an understanding of the Case Manager object model
Demonstrate an understanding of Case Builder and its Artifacts
Demonstrate an understanding of Case Task and Process Fragments
Demonstrate an understanding of the Page Designer
Demonstrate an understanding of IBM Content Navigator integration
Demonstrate an understanding of the security model
Demonstrate the use of IBM Case Manager bundled components
Demonstrate knowledge of using Case Operations Component

Section 3 - Deploying and Testing a Case Solution (8%)
Demonstrate an understanding of the deployment structure and its limitations
Demonstrate knowledge of project areas
Demonstrate knowledge of using the Case Manager Administration Client

Section 4 - Extending a Case Management Solution (16%)
Demonstrate knowledge of integrating custom widgets, business rules and reporting
Identify IBM capabilities to extend Case Manager capabilities
Identify integration scenarios between IBM BPM and Case Manager
Demonstrate an understanding of building a custom application using REST service and JavaScript APIs

Section 5 - Solution Migration (8%)
Understanding of the uses for Case Manager Configuration Manager, Case Manager Administration Client and FileNet Deployment Manager
Demonstrate an understanding of requirements and steps to deploy to production
Demonstrate an understanding of configuring security in a production environment

Section 6 - Business Metrics and Analytics (8%)
Demonstrate knowledge of using Case Analyzer
Demonstrate knowledge of using Case Monitor and Cognos RTM
Demonstrate knowledge of using Content Analytics with Enterprise Search

IBM Certified Solution Designer - Case Manager V5.2

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification test certifies that the successful candidate has the knowledge to create the theoretical and/or detailed technical design of an application, solution, and infrastructure using IBM Case Manager v5.2 (ICM). Provide expertise to evaluate and choose between alternatives; assist with balancing costs with capabilities and priorities. Identify products / technologies / processes to be included, and determine points of required integration and customization. Identify sizing and capacity issues, as well as conflicts with existing processes or environments.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Before preparing for this certification, the following knowledge and skills are recommended and assumed:

Knowledge of IBM Case Manager
Knowledge of P8 Administration
Knowledge of P8 Case Foundation
Knowledge of P8 Content Manager
Knowledge of supported Application Servers
Knowledge of Content Navigator
Knowledge of Cognos RealTime Monitoring
Knowledge of IBM Content Analytics

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